I would like serious feedback on this question. I remembered when the first news broke on HIV back in the early eighties. It was the gay men and IV drug users that were the first group to die from it. If two men who do not have HIV come together and have sex vs. a man and a woman that have anal sex. Which group is the most of at risk. Please only mature people respond to this serious question.
STDs - 5 Answers
Random Answers, Critics, Comments, Opinions :
1 :
I would think neither, as long as the man and woman are also free of the virus.
2 :
teh 2 men bc the disease is mainly found in majority of men quoted from CDC. the only reason the hetero group would be at risk bc the man sleeps with a man or is bi.. or a prostitute is at high risk bc her risky behaviors most likely to get infected by, once again, a man who is HIV positive.. its a man disease and somehow gay men have more bc its a large proportion of men that have it.. i think if women had it and was considered a woman disease.. and lets say men were naturally born to like other men.. itll be more infected in women who were lesbians .. u see the difference?
3 :
They are at equal risk because the virus does not really give a darn! The gay community has recently seen an upsurge in HIV infections after getting it much under control for many years. But the virus goes where it gets put. This may give you an overall view of HIV
4 :
I understand that this for whatever reason is a serious question, and while this forum is not necessarily the best place for a serious question, I will do my best to answer it with all candor. A lot has been learned about HIV/AIDS in the last few years. Your question is, as i understand it, about the relative risk factors, of heterosexual anal intercourse, and homosexual anal intercourse. With your statement that no one has HIV/AIDS in the two examples you gave, there is obviously no risk of contracting the disease. Having sex, anal or otherwise does not create the disease. Now the next logical question is, who is most at risk, if one of the partners has aids? Here are the factors as they are currently understood. HIV/AIDS is passed to another by direct blood/blood, abraded tissue to blood, or semen, or abraded tissue to abraded tissue. There are other ways, however for the purpose of this question, those are the main modes of transmission. In this case, the semen of the one ejaculating is an active source of infection. If the one receiving the semen has an abrasion in the rectum, which is virtually assured by the way, because of the nature of the anal intercourse, the highest risk factor is for the person having their rectum inseminated. If the situation is reversed, thereby the rectum being infected, and the penis not, there is much less chance for inoculation, as the penis is not always abraded, therefor there is less chance of infection. This is also true for vaginal intercourse, except that the female is more apt to infect the male as the vaginal fluids in some cases has been shown to have the complete HIV/AIDS viruses. I do not know if this helps you, or if you have other more specific questions. If this is about more than idle curiosity, you should not hesitate to contact your physician, and consult with them in a more detailed basis.
5 :
HIV doesn't discriminate and anyone is at risk to HIV, whether you're gay or straight.
